• Administrative distance refers to the trustworthiness of a particular route.
• A router first installs routes with higher administrative distances.
• The value of the administarive distance can not be altered by the network administrator.
• Routes with the smallest metric to a destination indicate the best path.
• The metric is always determined based on hop count.
• The metric varies depending which Layer 3 protocol is being routed, such as IP or IPX.

02. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes how R1 will determine the best path to R2?

• R1 will install a RIP route using network A in its routing table because the administrative distance of RIP is higher than EIGRP.
• R1 will install a RIP route using network A in its routing table because the path cost from RIP is lower than EIGRP.
• R1 will install an EIGRP route using network B in its routing table because the administrative distance of EIGRP is lower than RIP.
• R1 will install an EIGRP route using network B in its routing table because the path cost from EIGRP is lower than RIP.
• R1 will install an EIGRP route and a RIP route in its routing table and load balance between them.

03. Which two statements are true regarding classless routing protocols? (Choose two.)

• sends subnet mask information in routing updates
• sends complete routing table update to all neighbors
• is supported by RIP version 1
• allows for use of both 192.168.1.0/30 and 192.168.1.16/28 subnets in the same topology
• reduces the amount of address space available in an organization

04. Which command would the network administrator issue to determine if load balancing is in effect on a router?

• show ip protocols
• show ip route
• show ip interface brief
• show ip interface

05. Which two conditions would create a setting where the use of a distance-vector routing protocol would be efficient? (Choose two.)

• the network requires a special hierarchical design
• fast convergence of the network is crucial
• the network is using a hub and spoke topology
• the network is using a flat design
• there are more than 15 hops between the most distant routers

06. What is the purpose of a routing protocol?

• It is used to build and maintain ARP tables.
• It provides a method for segmenting and reassembling data packets.
• It allows an administrator to devise an addressing scheme for the network.
• It allows a router to share information about known networks with other routers.
• It provides a procedure for encoding and decoding data into bits for packet forwarding.

07. Which of the following best describes the operation of distance vector routing protocols?

• They use hop count as their only metric.
• They only send out updates when a new network is added.
• They send their routing tables to directly connected neighbors.
• They flood the entire network with routing updates.

08. When multiple routing protocols have a route to the same destination network, what determines which route is installed in the routing table?

• best metric
• lowest hop count
• greatest available bandwidth
• lowest administrative distance
• lowest cost

09. Why is fast convergence desirable in networks that use dynamic routing protocols?

• Routers will not allow packets to be forwarded until the network has converged.
• Hosts are unable to access their gateway until the network has converged.
• Routers may make incorrect forwarding decisions until the network has converged.
• Routers will not allow configuration changes to be made until the network has converged.

10. Which of the following conditions must be met in order for a network to have converged?

• The routers in the network are operating with dynamic routing protocols.
• The routers in the network are operating with compatible versions of IOS.
• The routers in the network are operating with the same routing tables.
• The routers in the network are operating with consistent routing knowledge.

11. Which two statements are true regarding metrics? (Choose two.)

• RIP uses bandwidth as a metric.
• OSPF uses delay as a metric.
• EIGRP uses bandwidth as a metric.
• OSPF uses cost based on bandwidth as a metric.
• RIP uses delay as a metric.
• EIGRP uses hop count only as a metric.

12. Which two statements are true regarding the advantages of the use of static routes? (Choose two).

• increased security
• reduced effort in configuring routes
• the administrator maintains control over routing
• easier to implement in a growing network
• reduces the chance of routing errors
• increased router resource usage

13. The following line of code is displayed in a routing table:

R 209.165.201.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.252.2, 00:00:16, S0/0/0

What can be concluded from this output?

• A packet destined for host 192.168.252.2 will be forwarded out the interface connected to network 209.165.201.0/24.
• The value, 120, is used to determine the best path when a router has more than one routing protocol configured for the same destination network.
• This route was manually configured using the ip route command.
• 192.168.252.2 is an interface on the router that produced this output.

14. What will be the result of the following commands?

ORL(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0

ORL(config-if)# ip address 172.16.3.1 255.255.255.0

ORL(config-if)# no shutdown

• The 172.16.3.0 network will be routed by any dynamic routing protocol automatically.
• A routing table entry is made to the 172.16.3.0 network with a code of “C”.
• A static route is required to route traffic to the 172.16.3.0 network.
• The commands will be saved to the startup-configuration automatically.

15. An engineer creates a static route by entering the Router(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.2 command. What can be concluded about this route?

• The administrative distance of this route is 1.
• 192.168.1.2 is the address of an interface on this router.
• This route will display as a directly connected network in the routing table.
• Packets with a destination IP address of 192.168.1.2 will be forwarded to the 10.0.0.0/24 network first.

16. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 and Router2 are running EIGRP. All interfaces are operational and packets can be forwarded between all networks. What information will be found in the routing table for Router1?

• Router1 will have 6 directly connected networks.
• The administrative distance of the route to network 172.16.0.0 will be 90.
• The metric for routes to 172.16.0.0 will be 1.
• The interface that is used to forward packets to 172.16.0.0 will always be the S0/1 interface.

17. The following line of code is present in the routing table:

O 10.16.1.0/27 [110/129] via 192.168.1.5, 00:00:05, Serial0/0/1

What does the number 129 indicate in this output?

• The cost for this link has a value of 129.
• The clock rate on this serial interface is set to 129,000.
• The next-hop router is 129 hops away from this router.
• This route has been updated 129 times in this routing table.

18. A growing medium-sized manufacturing company recently began to have routing instability issues. The company uses static routes and has a mixture of over 30 Cisco and non-Cisco routers. The network administrator has decided to convert the network to dynamic routing. What characteristics of protocols should be considered in this selection process?

• Distance vector routing protocols, such as RIP, converge more quickly than do link-state routing protocols.
• EIGRP can be used on all of the routers in the company.
• OSPF can be used between the routers.
• An exterior routing protocol, such as BGP, is recommended for growing companies.

19. Refer to the exhibit. If RIP is the routing protocol, what is the value of the metric from router A to network 192.168.5.0/24?

• 3
• 4
• 56
• 624
• 724

20. A router learns two paths with equal metrics to a destination network via the RIP routing protocol. How will the router handle packets to the destination network?

• The router will install the first route it learned into the routing table.
• The router will install both routes in the routing table and load balance between the two.
• The router will put the first route in the routing table, and denote the second route as a backup route.
• The router will pick the path with the higher bandwidth and will place it in the routing table.

Serial0/1 is up, line protocol is down.

What is the most likely cause for the line protocol being down?

• Serial0/1 is shutdown.
• There is no cable connecting the routers.
• The remote router is using serial 0/0.
• No clock rate has been set.

02. Which address can be used to summarize networks 172.16.0.0/24 thru 172.16.7.0/24?

• 172.16.0.0/21
• 172.16.1.0/22
• 172.16.0.0 255.255.255.248
• 172.16.0.0 255.255.252.0

03. Refer to the exhibit. How will packets destined to the 172.16.0.0 network be forwarded?

• Router1 will perform recursive lookup and packet will exit S0/0.
• Router1 will perform recursive lookup and packet will exit S0/1.
• There is no matching interface associated with network 172.16.0.0 so packets will be dropped.
• There is no matching interface associated with network 172.16.0.0 so packets will take gateway of last resort and exit out S0/2.

04. A static route that points to the next hop IP will have what administrative distance and metric in the routing table?

• administrative distance of 0 and metric of 0
• administrative distance of 0 and metric of 1
• administrative distance of 1 and metric of 0
• administrative distance of 1 and metric of 1

05. Hosts on two separate subnets cannot communicate. The network administrator suspects a missing route in one of the routing tables. Which three commands can be used to help troubleshoot Layer 3 connectivity issues? (Choose three.)

• ping
• show arp
• traceroute
• show ip route
• show controllers
• show cdp neighbor

06. Refer to the exhibit. Which static route should be configured on Router1 so that host A will be able to reach host B on the 172.16.0.0 network?

• ip route 192.168.0.0 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0
• ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 192.168.0.1
• ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0/1
• ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0/0

07. Which of the following are displayed by the Router# show cdp neighbors command? (Choose three.)

• load
• platform
• reliability
• holdtime
• local interface

08. Why is it advisable to enter a next-hop IP address when creating a static route whose exit interface is an Ethernet network?

• Adding the next-hop address eliminates the need for the router to do any lookups in the routing table before forwarding a packet.
• In a multi-access network, the router cannot determine the next-hop MAC address for the Ethernet frame without a next-hop address.
• Using a next-hop address in a static route provides a route with a lower metric.
• In multi-access networks, using a next-hop address in a static route makes that route a candidate default route.

09. Refer to the exhibit. Which set of commands will configure static routes that will allow the WinterPark and the Altamonte routers to deliver packets from each LAN and direct all other traffic to the Internet?

• WinterPark(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.146.1
  Altamonte(config)# ip route 10.0.234.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.146.2
  Altamonte(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/1
• WinterPark(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.146.1
  Altamonte(config)# ip route 10.0.234.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.146.2
  Altamonte(config)# ip route 198.18.222.0 255.255.255.255 s0/1
• WinterPark(config)# ip route 172.191.67.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.146.1
  WinterPark(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.146.1
  Altamonte(config)# ip route 10.0.234.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.146.2
• WinterPark(config)# ip route 172.191.67.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.146.1
  Altamonte(config)# ip route 10.0.234.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.146.2
  Altamonte(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0

10. What happens to a static route entry in a routing table when the outgoing interface is not available?

• The route is removed from the table.
• The router polls neighbors for a replacement route.
• The route remains in the table because it was defined as static.
• The router redirects the static route to compensate for the loss of the next hop device.

11. What address can be used to summarize networks 172.16.0.0/24 thru 172.16.7.0/24?

• 172.16.0.0/21
• 172.16.1.0/22
• 172.16.0.0 255.255.255.248
• 172.16.0.0 255.255.252.0

12. Refer to the exhibit. Given the output in the exhibit, how would a clock rate be determined for this link?

• The rate would be negotiated by both routers.
• A rate would not be selected due to the DCE/DTE connection mismatch.
• The rate configured on the DTE determines the clock rate.
• The rate configured on the DCE determines the clock rate.

13. Which piece of information is available from examining the output of the command show ip interface brief?

• Interface speed and duplex
• Interface MTU
• Errors
• Interface MAC address
• Interface IP address

14. What two devices are responsible for converting the data from the WAN service provider into a form acceptable by the router? (Choose two).

• the serial port of the router
• a modem
• a switch
• the ethernet port of the router
• a CSU/DSU device
• a DTE device

15. Refer to the exhibit. What two commands are required to provide connectivity between the 192.168.1.0 and 10.0.0.0 networks without requiring recursive lookup? (Choose two.)

• A(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 s 0/1/0
• A(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 172.16.40.2

• A (config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 s 0/0/0
• B(config)# ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 s 0/0/0
• B (config)# ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.40.1
• B(config)# ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 s 0/1/0

16. A router has one static route configured to each destination network. Which two scenarios would require an administrator to alter the static routes that are configured on that router? (Choose two.)

• The destination network no longer exists.
• The destination network is moved to a different interface on the same router.
• The path between the source and destination is upgraded with a higher bandwidth link.
• The remote destination network interface has to be down for 15 minutes of maintenance.
• A topology change occurs where the existing next-hop address or exit interface is not accessible.

17. A network administrator enters the following command into Router1: ip route 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.0 S0/1/0. Router1 then receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.0.22/24. After finding the recently configured static route in the routing table, what does Router1 do next to process the packet?

• drops the packet because the destination host is not listed in the routing table
• looks up the MAC address of the S0/1/0 interface to determine the destination MAC address of the new frame
• performs a recursive lookup for the IP address of the S0/1/0 interface before forwarding the packet
• encapsulates the packet into a frame for the WAN link and forwards the packet out the S0/1/0 interface

18. Refer to the exhibit. A company network engineer is assigned to establish connectivity between the two Ethernet networks so that hosts on the 10.1.1.0/24 subnet can contact hosts on the 10.1.2.0/24 subnet. The engineer has been told to use only static routing for these company routers. Which set of commands will establish connectivity between the two Ethernet networks?

• R1(config)# ip route 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.1
  R2(config)# ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2
• R1(config)# ip route 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2
  R2(config)# ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.1
• R1(config)# ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2
  R2(config)# ip route 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.1
• R1(config)# ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.1
  R2(config)# ip route 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2
• R1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.2.1
  R2(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.1.1

19. Refer to the exhibit. What is the significance of the /8 in the route to the 10.0.0.0 network?

• It indicates that there are 8 hops between this router and the 10.0.0.0 network.
• It represents the time, in milliseconds, it takes for a ping to reply when sent to the 10.0.0.0 network.
• It indicates that there are 8 subnets in the destination network to which the router can forward packets.
• It indicates the number of consecutive bits, from the left, in the destination IP address of a packet that must match 10.0.0.0 to use that route.

20. Refer to the exhibit. What two commands will change the next-hop address for the 10.0.0.0/8 network from 172.16.40.2 to 192.168.1.2? (Choose two.)

• A(config)# no network 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 172.16.40.2
• A(config)# no ip address 10.0.0.1 255.0.0.0 172.16.40.2
• A(config)# no ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 172.16.40.2
• A(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 s0/0/0
• A(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 192.168.1.2

21. Which two statements describe functions or characteristics of CDP? (Choose two.)

• It starts up automatically and allows the device to detect directly connected neighbor devices that use CDP.
• It operates at the network layer and allows two systems to learn about each other.
• It creates a topology map of the entire network.
• It allows systems to learn about each other even if different network layer protocols are configured.
• It forwards advertisements about routes for faster convergence.

22. Which of the following is true regarding CDP and the graphic shown?

• CDP running on Router D will gather information about routers A, B, C, and E.
• By default, Router A will receive CDP advertisements from routers B and C.
• If routers D and E are running different routing protocols, they will not exchange CDP information.
• Router E can use CDP to identify the IOS running on Router B.

• RAM permanently stores the configuration file used during the boot sequence.
• ROM contains diagnostics executed on hardware modules.
• NVRAM stores a backup copy of the IOS used during the boot sequence.
• Flash memory does not lose its contents during a reboot.
• ROM contains the most current and most complete version of the IOS.
• Flash contains boot system commands to identify the location of the IOS.

02. Which interfaces in the exhibit could be used for a leased line WAN connection? (Choose two.)

• 1
• 2
• 3
• 4
• 5
• 6

03. If a router cannot find a valid configuration file during the startup sequence, what will occur?

• The startup sequence will reset.
• The router will prompt the user for a response to enter setup mode.
• The startup sequence will halt until a valid configuration file is acquired.
• The router will generate a default configuration file based on the last valid configuration.
• The router will monitor local traffic to determine routing protocol configuration requirements.

04. Which of the following is the correct flow of routines for a router startup?

• load bootstrap, load IOS, apply configuration
• load bootstrap, apply configuration, load IOS
• load IOS, load bootstrap, apply configuration, check hardware
• check hardware, apply configuration, load bootstrap, load IOS

05. What is the default sequence for loading the configuration file?

• NVRAM, FLASH, ROM
• FLASH, TFTP,CONSOLE
• NVRAM, TFTP, CONSOLE
• FLASH, TFTP, ROM

06. From what location can a router load the Cisco IOS during the boot process? (Choose two.)

• RAM
• TFTP server
• NVRAM
• setup routine
• Flash memory
• Terminal

07. Which are functions of a router? (Choose three.)

• packet switching
• extension of network segments
• segmentation of broadcast domains
• selection of best path based on logical addressing
• selection of best path based on physical addressing

08. What three processes does a router execute when it receives a packet from one network that is destined for another network? (Choose three.)

• decapsulates the Layer 3 packet by stripping off the Layer 2 frame header
• uses the destination MAC Address in the IP Header to look up the next-hop address in the routing table
• leaves the Layer 2 frame header intact when decapsulating the Layer 3 packet
• uses the destination IP Address in the IP header to look up the next-hop address in the routing table
• encapsulates the Layer 3 packet into the new Layer 2 frame and forwards it out the exit interface
• encapsulates the Layer 3 packet into a special Layer 1 frame and forwards it to the exit interface

09. The network administrator needs to connect two routers directly via their FastEthernet ports. What cable should the network administrator use?

• straight-through
• rollover
• cross-over
• serial

10. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the output of the running-configuration of a router?

• The passwords are encrypted.
• The current configuration was saved to NVRAM.
• The configuration that is shown will be the one used on the next reboot.
• The commands that are displayed determine the current operation of the router.

11. Which two statements describe characteristics of load balancing? (Choose two.)

• Load balancing occurs when a router sends the same packet to different destination networks.
• Load balancing occurs when the same number of packets are sent over static and dynamic routes.
• Load balancing allows a router to forward packets over multiple paths to the same destination network.
• Unequal cost load balancing is supported by EIGRP.
• If multiple paths with different metrics to a destinations exist, the router cannot support load balancing.

12. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the routing table output in the exhibit? (Choose two.)

• This router only has two interfaces.
• The router interfaces are not operational yet.
• This router is configured to forward packets to remote networks.
• The FastEthernet0/0 and Serial0/0/0 interfaces of this router were configured with an IP address and the no shutdown command.
• An IP packet received by this router with a destination address of 198.18.9.1 will be forwarded out of the Serial0/0/0 interface.

13. The serial connection shown in the graphic needs to be configured. Which configuration commands must be made on the Sydney router to establish connectivity with the Melbourne site? (Choose three.)

• Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.2 255.255.255.0
• Sydney(config-if)# no shutdown
• Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.1 255.255.255.224
• Sydney(config-if)# clock rate 56000
• Sydney(config-if)# ip host Melbourne 201.100.53.2

14. Passwords can be used to restrict access to all or parts of the Cisco IOS. Select the modes and interfaces that can be protected with passwords. (Choose three.)

• VTY interface
• console interface
• Ethernet interface
• secret EXEC mode
• privileged EXEC mode
• router configuration mode

15. What is the outcome of entering these commands?

R1(config)# line vty 0 4
R1(config-line)# password check123
R1(config-line)# login

• ensures that a password is entered before entering user EXEC mode
• sets the password to be used for connecting to this router via Telnet
• requires check123 to be entered before the configuration can be saved
• creates a local user account for logging in to a router or switch

16. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has configured the router with the interface IP addresses shown for the directly connected networks. Pings from the router to hosts on the connected networks or pings between router interfaces are not working. What is the most likely problem?

• The destination networks do not exist.
• The IP addresses on the router interfaces must be configured as network addresses and not host addresses.
• The interfaces must be enabled with the no shutdown command.
• Each interface must be configured with the clock rate command.

17. A network administrator has just entered new configurations into Router1. Which command should be executed to save configuration changes to NVRAM?

• Router1# copy running-config flash
• Router1(config)# copy running-config flash
• Router1# copy running-config startup-config
• Router1(config)# copy running-config startup-config
• Router1# copy startup-config running-config
• Router1(config)# copy startup-config running-config

18. Refer to the exhibit. All routers have a route in its routing table to each network that is shown in the exhibit. Default routes have not been issued on these routers. What can be concluded about how packets are forwarded in this network? (Choose two.)

• If RouterC receives a packet that is destined for 10.5.1.1, it will be forwarded out interface Fa0/0.
• If RouterA receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.3.146, it will be forwarded out interface S0/0/1.
• If RouterB receives a packet that is destined for 10.5.27.15, it will be forwarded out interface S0/0/1.
• If RouterB receives a packet that is destined for 172.20.255.1, it will be forwarded out interface S0/0/0.
• If RouterC receives a packet that is destined for 192.16.5.101, it will be forwarded out interface S0/0/1.

19. What header address information does a router change in the information it receives from an attached Ethernet interface before information is transmitted out another interface?

• only the Layer 2 source address
• only the Layer 2 destination address
• only the Layer 3 source address
• only the Layer 3 destination address
• the Layer 2 source and destination address
• the Layer 3 source and destination address

20. Refer to the exhibit. Host A pings host B. When R4 accepts the ping into the Ethernet interface, what two pieces of header information are included? (Choose two.)

• source IP address: 192.168.10.129
• source IP address: BBBB.3333.5677
• source MAC address: 5555.AAAA.6666
• destination IP address: 192.168.10.33
• destination IP address: 192.168.10.134
• destination MAC address: 9999.DADC.1234

21. Refer to the exhibit. After host 2 is connected to the switch on the LAN, host 2 is unable to communicate with host 1. What is the cause of this problem?

• The subnet mask of host 2 is incorrect.
• Host 1 and host 2 are on different networks.
• The switch needs an IP address that is not configured.
• The router LAN interface and host 1 are on different networks.
• The IP address of host 1 is on a different network than is the LAN interface of the router.

• The user enters the file name to be deleted.
• The name is checked to make sure the file exists and is an ordinary file. If not, the user is asked again for a file until a valid name is entered or the user exits.
• If the file name is valid, the file will NOT be deleted permanently but will be moved to a directory called “dsave” in the user’s /home directory keeping the same name but with some extra numbers added to make sure the name is unique. The reason for making the file name unique because the user may delete several files with the same name from different directories, so it is necessary to add some characters to the file name to make sure it is unique.

Note: The directory dsave may not exist, so the script will check if “dsave” does not exist it will create it in the /home directory.
Hint: If the file name is read as fname, then it will be moved to the name $fname$$. The variable $$ is the process ID of the current shell and changes all the time that will guarantee that each file being deleted will be have a unique name.

# !/bin/bash
# MENU DRIVEN BASH SCRIPT CREATED BY Nathan Joseph (http://NJ180degree.net)
# CREATED ON FEBRUARY 25th 2010
# ISSUED UNDER THE GNU GPL (GNU GPL)
echo "Hello $USER, Welcome to NATHAN CONTROL MENU"
echo "The Date & Time is:"
date
function SAFEDEL {
	echo -e "Please enter a file name to be deleted"
	read FNAME
	if [ ! -d /home/dsave ]
	then
		mkdir /home/dsave
	else
		echo ""
fi
	if [ -f $FNAME ]
	then
		mv $FNAME  /home/dsave/$FNAME$$
		echo -e "The file $FNAME Has succesfully deleted"
	else
		echo -e "Error: The file $FNAME does NOT exists!"
fi
}
echo -e "Please choose from the following options by entering 0 or 1"
echo -e "1. Safely delete a file!"
echo -e "0. Exit"
read option
while [ "$option" != "0" ]
	do
		case $option in
			1) SAFEDEL ;;
			*) echo -e "Invaild choice, please choose from 0 or 1 only" ;;
			0) echo -e "Thanks for using my script.. you may change or modify it to suit your purposes : )"
			echo -e "0.Exit the program"
			exit 0
			 ;;
		esac
		echo -e "Please press return to go back to the main menu"
		read RETURN
		echo -e "Please choose from the following options by entering 0 or 1"
		echo -e "1. Safely delete a file!"
		echo -e "0. Exit"
			read option
	done
exit

Enjoy : )

• IP
• UDP
• Ethernet
• a connectionless acknowledgement
• an upper-layer, connection-oriented protocol or service

02. Refer to the exhibit. Each media link is labeled. What type of cable should be used to connect the different devices?

• Connection 1 – rollover cable
  Connection 2 – straight-through cable
  Connection 3 – crossover cable

• Connection 1 – crossover cable

  
  

Connection 2 – rollover cable
Connection 3 – crossover cable

• Connection 1 – straight-through cable
  Connection 2 – crossover cable
  Connection 3 – crossover cable

• Connection 1 – straight-through cable
  Connection 2 – crossover cable
  Connection 3 – straight-through cable

• Connection 1 – crossover cable
  Connection 2 – straight-through cable
  Connection 3 – crossover cable

03. Which OSI layer does IP rely on to determine whether packets have been lost and to request retransmission?

• application
• presentation
• session
• transport

04. Refer to the exhibit. What is the correct destination socket number for a web page request from Host A to the web server?

• 00-08-a3-b6-ce-46
• 198.133.219.25:80
• http://www.cisco.com
• C 198.133.219.0/24 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/0

05. A PC can not connect to any remote websites, ping its default gateway, or ping a printer that is functioning properly on the local network segment. Which action will verify that the TCP/IP stack is functioning correctly on this PC?

• Use the ipconfig /all command at the host’s command prompt.
• Use the ping 127.0.0.1 command at the command prompt.
• Use the traceroute command at the command prompt to identify any failures on the path to the gateway.
• Use FTP to check for connectivity to remote sites.
• Download a troubleshooting tool from the PC manufacturer’s website.

06. Which type of media is immune to EMI and RFI? (Choose two.)

• 10 Base-T
• 10 Base-2
• 10 Base-5
• 100 Base-FX
• 100 Base TX
• 1000 Base LX

07. Refer to the exhibit. The command that is shown was issued on a PC. What does the IP address 192.168.33.2 represent?

• IP address of the host
• default gateway of the host
• IP address of the homepage for the host
• primary domain name server for the host
• IP address of the website resolver1.mooki.local

08. Refer to the exhibit. The diagram represents the process of sending email between clients. Select the list below that correctly identifies the component or protocol used at each numbered stage of the diagram.

• 1.MUA 2.MDA 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.POP 7.MDA 8.MUA
• 1.MUA 2.POP 3.MDA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.SMTP 8.MUA
• 1.MUA 2.POP 3.SMTP 4.MDA 5.MTA 6.SMTP 7.POP 8.MUA
• 1.MDA 2.SMTP 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MUA 7.POP 8.MDA
• 1.MUA 2.SMTP 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.POP 8.MUA

09. What is true regarding network layer addressing? (Choose three)

• uses a flat structure
• prevent broadcasts
• heirarchical
• uniquely identifies each host
• 48 bits in length
• contains a network portion

10. Which OSI layers offers reliable, connection-oriented data communication services?

• application
• presentation
• session
• transport
• network

11. Examine the graphic with current configurations. Host A in the Clerical offices failed and was replaced. Although a ping to 127.0.0.1 was successful, the replacement computer can not access the company network. What is the likely cause of the problem?

• IP address incorrectly entered
• network cables unplugged
• subnet mask incorrectly entered
• network card failure

12. Refer to the exhibit. Host A attempts to establish a TCP/IP session with host C. During this attempt, a frame was captured with the source MAC address 0050.7320.D632 and the destination MAC address 0030.8517.44C4. The packet inside the captured frame has an IP source address 192.168.7.5, and the destination IP address is 192.168.219.24. At which point in the network was this packet captured?

• leaving host A
• leaving ATL
• leaving Dallas
• leaving NYC

13. Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined from the information that is given? (Choose two.)

• This exchange is part of the three-way handshake.
• The source port indicates that a Telnet session has been initiated.
• The data is flowing from server to client.
• The destination port indicates that an HTTP session has been initiated.
• The data listed is associated with the transport layer.
• The source port does not support communication with the destination port that is listed.

14. Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the IP configuration that is shown, what is the reason that Host A and Host B are unable to communicate outside the local network?

• Host A was assigned a network address.
• Host B was assigned a multicast address.
• Host A and Host B belong to different networks.
• The gateway address was assigned a broadcast address.

15. Which of the following are the address ranges of the private IP addresses? (Choose three.)

• 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255
• 200.100.50.0 to 200.100.25.255
• 150.150.0.0 to 150.150.255.255
• 172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255
• 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255
• 127.16.0.0 to 127.31.255.255

16. Which combination of network id and subnet mask correctly identifies all IP addresses from 172.16.128.0 through 172.16.159.255?

• 172.16.128.0 255.255.255.224
• 172.16.128.0 255.255.0.0
• 172.16.128.0 255.255.192.0
• 172.16.128.0 255.255.224.0
• 172.16.128.0 255.255.255.192

17. Which password is automatically encrypted when it is created?

• vty
• aux
• console
• enable secret
• enable password

18. Which three statements characterize the transport layer protocols? (Choose three.)

• TCP and UDP port numbers are used by application layer protocols.




• TCP uses port numbers to provide reliable transportation of IP packets.
• UDP uses windowing and acknowledgments for reliable transfer of data.
• TCP uses windowing and sequencing to provide reliable transfer of data.
• TCP is a connection-oriented protocol. UDP is a connectionless protocol.

19. When must a router serial interface be configured with the clock rate command?

• when the interface is functioning as a DTE device
• when the interface timers have been cleared
• when the connected DTE device is shut down
• when the interface is functioning as a DCE device

20. Which two functions of the OSI model occur at layer two? (Choose two.)

• physical addressing
• encoding
• routing
• cabling
• media access control

21. A routing issue has occurred in you internetwork. Which of the following type of devices should be examined to isolate this error?

• access point
• host
• hub
• router
• switch

22. Refer to the exhibit. With the router running NAT, what IP addresses can be applied to the computer to allow access to the Internet? (Choose three)

• 192.168.18.38
• 192.168.18.48
• 192.168.18.49
• 192.168.18.52
• 192.168.18.59
• 192.168.18.63

23. Due to a security violation, the router passwords must be changed. What information can be learned from the following configuration entries? (Choose two)

Router(config)# line vty 0 3
Router(config-line)# password c13c0
Router(config-line)# login

• The entries specify three Telnet lines for remote access.
• The entries specify four Telnet lines for remote access.
• The entries set the console and Telnet password to “c13c0″.
• Telnet access will be denied because the Telnet configuration is incomplete.
• Access will be permitted for Telnet using “c13c0″ as the password.

24. As network administrator, what is the subnet mask that allows 510 hosts given the IP address 172.30.0.0?

• 255.255.0.0
• 255.255.248.0
• 255.255.252.0
• 255.255.254.0
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.128

25. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator remotely accesses the CLI of RouterB from PC1 using Telnet. Which statement is true about this connection?

• The data is automatically encrypted.
• A Telnet server process is running on PC1.
• The connection is made through a VTY session on the router.
• A GET request was sent to RouterB to retrieve data during this session.

26. Refer to the exhibit. Cable 1 and cable 2 have the ends wired for specific physical layer requirements. The table lists each segment by number and the cable which has been installed by the network technician between the network components on that segment. From the data given, which segments have the correct cable installed? (Choose three.)

• segment1
• segment2
• segment3
• segment4
• segment5

27.  Refer to the exhibit. What three statements are true about the IP configuration that is shown? (Choose three.)

• The address that is assigned to the computer represents private addressing.
• The computer is unable to communicate outside of the local network.
• The network of this computer can have 126 hosts.
• The prefix of the computer address is /27.
• The IP address that is assigned to the computer is routable on the Internet.
• The IP address that is assigned to the computer is a broadcast address.

28. Which three IPv4 addresses represent a broadcast for a subnet? (Choose three.)

• 172.16.4.63 /26
• 172.16.4.129 /26
• 172.16.4.191 /26
• 172.16.4.51 /27
• 172.16.4.95 /27
• 172.16.4.221 /27

29. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is trying to determine the correct IP address configuration for Host A. What is a valid configuration for Host A?

• IP address: 192.168.100.19; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248; Default Gateway: 192.16.1.2
• IP address: 192.168.100.20; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.17
• IP address: 192.168.100.21; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.18
• IP address: 192.168.100.22; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 10.1.1.5
• IP address: 192.168.100.30; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.1.1
• IP address: 192.168.100.31; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.18

30. The Layer 4 header contains which type of information to aid in the delivery of data?

• service port number
• host logical address
• device physical address
• virtual connection identifier

31. During the encapsulation process, which identifiers are added at the transport layer?

• two networks routing the packets
• two applications communicating the data
• two hosts at either end of the communication
• two nodes on the local network exchanging the frame

32. Refer to the exhibit. Assume all devices are using default configurations. How many subnets are required to address the topology that is shown?

• 1
• 3
• 4
• 5
• 7

33. Refer to the exhibit. Which logical topology best describes the exhibited network?

• star
• ring
• point-to-point
• multiaccess
• mesh

34. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is transmitting data to host B. What addresses will host A use to for the destination IP
and MAC addresses in this communication?

• Destination MAC: BBBB:BBBB:BBBB Destination IP: 172.22.0.62
• Destination MAC: DDDD:DDDD:DDDD Destination IP: 172.22.0.75
• Destination MAC: EEEE:EEEE:EEEE Destination IP: 172.22.0.62
• Destination MAC: BBBB:BBBB:BBBB Destination IP: 172.22.0.75
• Destination MAC: EEEE:EEEE:EEEE Destination IP: 172.22.0.75
• Destination MAC: DDDD:DDDD:DDDD Destination IP: 172.22.0.94

35. Refer to the exhibit. A router, whose table is shown, receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.1.4. How will router treat the packet?

• The packet will be dropped.
• The packet will be forwarded via FastEthernet 0/0.
• The packet will be forwarded to the destination host.
• The packet will be forwarded to the 192.168.1.3 next-hop address.

36. Refer to the exhibit. Which set of devices contains only intermediary devices?

• A, B, D, G
• A, B, E, F
• C, D, G, I
• G, H, I, J

37.  Refer to the exhibit. A technician is working on a network problem that requires verification of the router LAN interface. What address should be pinged from this host to confirm that the router interface is operational?

• 127.0.0.1
• 192.168.64.196
• 192.168.254.1
• 192.168.254.9
• 192.168.254.254

38. Which prompt represents the appropriate mode used for the copy running-config startup-config command ?

• Switch-6J>
• Switch-6J#
• Switch-6J(config)#
• Switch-6J(config-if)#
• Switch-6J(config-line)#

39. A technician is asked to secure the privileged EXEC mode of a switch by requiring a password. Which type of password would require this login and be considered the most secure?

• console
• enable
• enable secret
• VTY

40. Which range of port numbers are reserved for services that are commonly used by applications that run on servers?

• 0 to 255
• 0 to 1023
• 1024 to 49151
• 49152 to 65535

41. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements describe the information that is represented in the header? (Choose two)

• This is a server response.
• The UDP protocol is being used.
• The destination port indicates a Telnet session.
• The return segment will contain a source port of 23.
• The next session originated from the client of this session will use the source port number 13358.

42. In a Cisco IOS device, where is the startup-configuration file stored?

• Flash
• NVRAM
• RAM
• ROM

43.  Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined about the exhibited topology? (Choose two)

• A single broadcast domain is present
• Two logical address ranges are required.
• Three broadcast domains are shown.
• Four networks are needed.
• Five collision domains exist.

44. What are three characteristics of CSMA/CD? (Choose three)

• Devices can be configured with a higher transmission priority.
• A jam signal indicates that the collision has cleared and the media is not busy.
• A device listens and waits until the media is not busy before transmitting.
• The device with the electronic token is the only one that can transmit after a collision.
• All of the devices on a segment see data that passes on the network medium.
• After detecting a collision, hosts can attempt to resume transmission after a random time delay has expired.

45. Refer to the exhibit. What is required on host A for a network technician to create the initial configuration on Router1?

• an FTP client
• a Telnet client
• a terminal emulation program
• a web browser

46. Refer to the exhibit. The tracert command is initiated from PC1 to PC4. Which device will send a response to the initial tracert packet from PC1?

• Athens
• Ankara
• London
• Paris
• PC4

47. Refer to the exhibit. When computer A sends a frame to computer D, what computers receive the frame?

• only computer D
• only computer A and computer D
• only computer B, computer C, and computer D
• all computers

48. Refer to the exhibit. What function does router RT_A need to provide to allow Internet access for hosts in this network?

• address translation
• DHCP services
• ftpd
• web server

49. Refer to the exhibit. The network containing router B is experiencing problems. A network associate has isolated the issue in this network to router B. What action can be preformed to correct the network issue?

• issue the clock rate command on interface Serial 0/0/0
• issue the description command on interface Serial 0/0/1
• issue the ip address command on interface FastEthernet 0/0
• issue the no shutdown command on interface FastEthernet 0/1

service nfs start

The server has to be running the following daemons:
rpc.nfsd: The NFS daemon which Services client requests for file system operations.
rpc.mountd: The remote Procedure Call (RPC) that answers a client request to mount a file system.
rpc.rquotad: which handles user file quotas on exported volumes.
rpc.lockd and rpc.statd; which handle file locking.
Recent Linux distributions will have startup scripts for these daemons.

Setting Up an NFS Server:

In order to set up an NFS server you need to edit the following three configuration files:
/etc/exports NFS main configuration file system.
/etc/hosts.allow Security file configuration
/etc/hosts.deny Security file configuration

Configuring /etc/exports:
It shows the files and directories are to be exported and which hosts can access them, and what kind of access is allowed. A simple entry in the /etc/exports file will look like this:

 /directory host(option1,option2)

Where:
directory: The directory you want to be shared. It must be full path name of the directory or file being exported. Note that if the directory is not followed by a host or an option, all hosts are granted read/write access to the directory. If a directory has been shared, then all directories within the same file system will be shared as well.

host: this is the client machine that will have access to this directory. The client machine can be listed by the DNS address of that specific machine (machine name) or by its IP address (e.g., computer10.nj180degree.net or 10.10.10.224), However using DNS address is not recommended. Note if no host value is specified, the directory is exported to everyone.
Some valid host values:
- Individual host names on the same domain or on different domain:.

/directory         nathan.nj180degree.net

/directory         nathan.nj180degree.net         bob.nj180degree.com

- wildcards such as *nj180degree.net means every host in the nj180degree.net domain.
- IP address/mask such as 192.168.1.0/255.255.255.0 for every host with an address that begins with 192.168.1.
- One directory can be exported for multiple clients in a single line yet they have the same domain name as the server eg.

/directory     -ro host1 host2 host3

options: Describes the kind of access that machine will have, the most important two options to be used in here:
- ro: The directory shared is read only; the client has no writing permission. This is the default.
- rw: client has read and write access. Note when no option is included in the exports file entry this option will be used as default.

Other options:
no_root_squash: If the user root request a file from the client machine it would be treated as if the request made by user nobody on the server. If no_root_squash is selected the root on the client machine will have exactly the same level of access to the files as root on the server.
no_subtree_check: If only part of a volume is exported, a routine called subtree checking verifies that a file that is requested from the client is in the appropriate part of the volume. If the entire volume is exported, disabling this check will speed up transfers.
sync: this option is prevent data corruption if the server reboots .
Note: async behavior tells a client machine that a file write is complete when NFS has finished handing the write over to the filesysytem. This behavior may cause data corruption if the server reboots.
Examples:

	/usr		192.168.1.0/255.255.255.0(ro)

Directory “/usr”: Read only permission for all IPs addresses within the network 192.168.1.0 with subnet mask 255.255.255.0

	/home		192.168.1.0/255.255.255.0(rw)

Directory “/home” has read and write permissions for all IPs addresses within the network 192.168.1.0 and subnet mask 255.255.255.0

	/usr/man	jack(rw) sherry(rw)

Directory “/usr/man” has read and write permissions for individual users jack and sherry

	/home/sales	*.sales.nj180degree.net(rw)

Directory “/home/sales” has read and write permissions for all users within sales sub domain clients.

Note: If you made changes to the file /etc/exports, the changes may not take effect immediately until you run the command exportfs -ra to force nfsd to re-read the /etc/exports file.
There are a couple more methods to configure NFS through a graphical interface instead. I may post a blog entry regarding the graphical methods later on this month.

Configuring etc/hosts.allow and /etc/hosts.deny

You can control and secure the NFS server by adding some entries in one of these two files or in both of them. These two files specify which computers on the network can use services on your machine. Each line of the file contains a single entry listing a service and a set of machines. When the server gets a request from a machine, it does the following:

• It first checks hosts.allow to see if the machine matches a description listed in there. If it does, then the machine is allowed access.
• If the machine does not match an entry in hosts.allow, the server then checks hosts.deny to see if the client matches a listing in there. If it does then the machine is denied access.
• If the client matches no listings in either file, then it is allowed access.

An entry in hosts.allow or hosts.deny files may look like:

 service: host [or network/netmask] , host [or network/netmask]

Configuring an NFS Client:

After you got the directories being exported by the server, create a local directory on the client host to match those offered by the servers and then attach NFS directories with the mount command to the local directories you just created.

The following daemons should be running on the client box: portmap, lockd, statd to be able to mount the remote directory.
The Linux showmount command lists the directories that a server exports and the clients permitted to mount those directories.  Only users and groups who are granted permissions on the list can mount those directories Eg.

$ showmount	--exports servername
/home		192.168.1.0/255.255.255.0(rw)
/usr		192.168.1.0/255.255.255.0(ro)
/usr/man	jack(rw) sherry(rw)
/home/sales	*.sales.nj180degree.net(rw)

To attach the remote nfs directory to the local one use mount command, notice the space between two paths :

$ mount servername:/home  /home

$ mount servername: /home/sales  /home/sales

Hint: the local directory’s name doesn’t need to be the same as the remote one, you may create a local directory with different name such as:

$ mkdir /mnt/sydneybranch
$ mount servername:/mnt/salessydney /mnt/sydneybranch

Making the mount permanent:
A shared directory on a server can be mounted each time a client is started, by listing it in the /etc/fstab file. Yet the /etc/fstab file may look so confusing to modify. In this case inspect the file /etc/mtab which lists any currently mounted directories to determine the exact entry required in /etc/fstab.

Mount a directory, and look at its entry in /etc/mtab. copy that entry and past it within /etc/fstab. Next time the system reboot the mount will automatically take place.

You may like to try the autofs service to do the same job in a different way, as it is often said “all roads lead to Rome“.

• show flash
• show NVRAM
• show startup-config
• show running-config
• show version

02. Users in the network are experiencing slow response time when doing file transfers to a remote server. What command could be issued to determine if the router has experienced any input or output errors?

• show running-config
• show startup-config
• show interfaces
• show ip route
• show version
• show memory

03. Refer to the exhibit. A technician applies the configuration in the exhibit to a clean router. To verify the configuration, the technician issues the show running-config command in the CLI session with the router. What lines should the technician expect to see in the router output from the show running-config command?

* enable password class
  line console 0
  password ccna

 * enable secret cisco
   enable password class
   line console 0
   password ccna

* enable secret 5 $1$v0/3$QyQWmJyT7zCa/yaBRasJm0
  enable password class
  line console 0
  password ccna

* enable secret cisco
  enable password 7 14141E0A1F17
  line console 0
  password 7 020507550A

* enable secret 5 $1$v0/3$QyQWmJyT7zCa/yaBRasJm0
  enable password 7 14141E0A1F17
  line console 0

04. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator on HostA has problems accessing the FTP server. Layer three connectivity testing was successful from HostA to the S1 interface of RouterB. Which set of commands will allow the network administrator to telnet to RouterB and run debug commands?

* RouterB(config)# enable secret class
  RouterB(config)# line vty 0 4
  RouterB(config-if)# login

* RouterB(config)# enable secret class
  RouterB(config)# line vty 0 2
  RouterB(config-vty)# password cisco
  RouterB(config-vty)# login

* RouterB(config)# enable secret class
  RouterB(config)# line vty 0
  RouterB(config-line)# password cisco
  RouterB(config-line)# login

* RouterB(config)# enable secret class
  RouterB(config)# line aux 0
  RouterB(config-line)# password cisco
  RouterB(config-line)# login

* RouterB(config)# enable secret class
  RouterB(config)# line aux 0
  RouterB(config-vty)# password cisco
  RouterB(config-vty)# login

05. The connection between routers B and C has been successfully tested. However, after rebooting router C, the administrator noticed the response time between networks 10.10.3.0 and 10.10.4.0 is slower. Ping between the two routers is successful. A trace route indicates three hops from router B to router C. What else can be done to troubleshoot the problem?

• Ping router B S0/1 connection from router C.
• Trace the connection between router B to router C S0/1.
• Issue a show ip route command in router B to verify routing is enabled.
• Issue a show ip interface brief command on router C.

06. What command is used to change the default router name to Fontana?

• Router# name Fontana
• Router# hostname Fontana
• Router(config)# name Fontana
• Router(config)# hostname Fontana

07. The serial connection shown in the graphic needs to be configured. Which configuration commands must be made on the Sydney router to establish connectivity with the Melbourne site? (Choose three.)

• Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.2 255.255.255.0
• Sydney(config-if)# no shutdown
• Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.1 255.255.255.224
• Sydney(config-if)# clock rate 56000
• Sydney(config-if)# ip host Melbourne 201.100.53.2

08. Refer to the exhibit. The output is shown for the show ip route command executed on Router A. What does the IP address 192.168.2.2 represent?

• Gateway for the 192.168.1.0 network
• Gateway for the 192.168.3.0 network
• IP assigned to the serial port on Router A
• IP assigned to the serial port on Router B

09. Refer to the exhibit. What additional command is required to allow remote access to this switch from hosts outside the local network?

• NA-SW1(config-if)# no shutdown
• NA-SW1(config)# enable password password
• NA-SW1(config)# ip default-gateway address
• NA-SW1(config-if)# description description

10. In a Cisco device, where is the IOS file stored prior to system startup?

• RAM
• ROM
• Flash
• NVRAM

11. When network services fail, which port is most often used to access a router for management purposes?

• AUX




• Ethernet
• Console
• Telnet
• SSH

12. A network administrator needs to keep the user ID, password, and session contents private when establishing remote CLI connectivity with a router to manage it. Which access method should be chosen?

• Telnet
• Console
• AUX
• SSH

13. In a Cisco router, when do changes made to the running-configuration take effect?

• after a system restart
• as the commands are entered
• when logging off the system
• when the configuration is saved to the startup-configuration

14. Refer to the exhibit. Which names correctly identify the CLI mode represented by the prompt for Switch-East4#? (Choose two.)

• line configuration mode
• user executive mode
• global configuration mode
• privileged executive mode
• interface configuration mode
• enable mode

15. Which three terms correctly define the forms of help available within the Cisco IOS? (Choose three.)

• hot keys
• context-check
• context-sensitive
• structured check
• command override
• command syntax check

16. Which combination of keys would be used at the CLI prompt to interrupt a ping or traceroute process?

• Ctrl-C
• Ctrl-P
• Ctrl-R
• Ctrl-Shift-6
• Ctrl-Z

17. Refer to the exhibit. What command will place the router into the correct mode to configure an appropriate interface to connect to a LAN?

• UBAMA# configure terminal
• UBAMA(config)# line vty 0 4
• UBAMA(config)# line console 0
• UBAMA(config)# interface Serial 0/0/0
• UBAMA(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1

18. On a Cisco router, which interface would be used to make the initial configuration?

Console

19. Refer to the exhibit. A student is responsible for the IP addressing, configuration and connectivity testing of the network shown in the graphic. A ping from host B to host C results in a destination unreachable but a ping from host B to host A was successful. What two reasons could account for this failure based on the graphic and partial router output for the Dallas router? (Choose two.)

• The host A is turned off.
• The Fa0/0 interface on Dallas is shutdown.
• The LAN cable is disconnected from host B.
• The S0/0/1 IP address of Dallas is improperly configured.
• The Fa0/0 interface on Dallas is in a different subnet than host B.
• The clock rate is missing on the serial link between Dallas and NYC.

Unix users: type in a terminal

  wget -c URL

or

curl -C - -L -O URL

Or use aria2 or wxDownload Fast

Windows users: use Free Download Manager or GetRight

MAC users: Speed Download

Alternatively use a download software  that allows you to resume downloading from the point where it failed if the download aborts.

• Australia: ftp.iinet.net.au: FTP HTTP
• Australia: mirror.aarnet.edu.au: FTP HTTP
• Australia: mirror.cse.unsw.edu.au: HTTP
• Australia: mirror.intrapower.net.au: FTP HTTP
• Australia: mirror.pacific.net.au: FTP HTTP
• Austria: debian.inode.at: FTP HTTP
• Austria: ftp.at.debian.org: FTP HTTP
• Austria: gd.tuwien.ac.at: HTTP
• Belarus: ftp.mgts.by: FTP HTTP
• Belgium: ftp.be.debian.org: FTP HTTP
• Belgium: ftp.belnet.be: FTP HTTP
• Brazil: debian.las.ic.unicamp.br: FTP HTTP
• Brazil: debian.pop-sc.rnp.br: HTTP
• Brazil: debs.ifsul.edu.br: FTP HTTP
• Brazil: ftp.br.debian.org: FTP HTTP
• Brazil: sft.if.usp.br: HTTP
• Bulgaria: ftp.uni-sofia.bg: FTP HTTP
• Canada: debian.mirror.iweb.ca: FTP HTTP
• Canada: debian.savoirfairelinux.net: FTP HTTP
• Canada: debian.yorku.ca: HTTP
• Costa Rica: mirrors.ucr.ac.cr: FTP HTTP
• Croatia: ftp.carnet.hr: FTP HTTP
• Croatia: ftp.hr.debian.org: FTP HTTP
• Croatia: iso.linux.hr: FTP HTTP
• Czech Republic: debian-cd.mirror.web4u.cz: FTP HTTP
• Czech Republic: debian.ignum.cz: FTP HTTP
• Czech Republic: debian.mirror.dkm.cz: FTP HTTP
• Czech Republic: debian.superhosting.cz: FTP HTTP
• Czech Republic: ftp.zcu.cz: FTP HTTP
• Denmark: ftp.dk.debian.org: FTP HTTP
• El Salvador: debian.ues.edu.sv: HTTP
• Finland: ftp.fi.debian.org: FTP HTTP
• Finland: ftp.funet.fi: FTP HTTP
• France: debian.advalem.net: FTP HTTP
• France: debian.ens-cachan.fr: FTP HTTP
• France: debian.forpro-creteil.org: FTP HTTP
• France: debian.med.univ-tours.fr: FTP HTTP
• France: debian.mines.inpl-nancy.fr: FTP HTTP
• France: debian.mirror.inra.fr: FTP HTTP
• France: ftp.iut-bm.univ-fcomte.fr: FTP HTTP
• France: ftp.proxad.net: FTP
• France: ftp2.fr.debian.org: FTP HTTP
• France: mirror.cict.fr: FTP HTTP
• France: webb.ens-cachan.fr: FTP HTTP
• Germany: debian.uni-duisburg-essen.de: FTP HTTP
• Germany: ftp-stud.fht-esslingen.de: FTP HTTP
• Germany: ftp.de.debian.org: FTP HTTP
• Germany: ftp.hosteurope.de: FTP HTTP
• Germany: ftp.informatik.rwth-aachen.de: FTP HTTP
• Germany: ftp.informatik.uni-frankfurt.de: FTP HTTP
• Germany: ftp.mpi-sb.mpg.de: FTP
• Germany: ftp.rrzn.uni-hannover.de: FTP
• Germany: ftp.tu-chemnitz.de: FTP
• Germany: ftp.tu-clausthal.de: FTP
• Germany: ftp.uni-bayreuth.de: FTP HTTP
• Germany: ftp5.gwdg.de: FTP HTTP
• Great Britain: debian-iso.mirror.anlx.net: FTP HTTP
• Great Britain: debian.virginmedia.com: FTP
• Great Britain: ftp.mirrorservice.org: FTP
• Great Britain: ftp.ticklers.org: FTP HTTP
• Great Britain: www.mirrorservice.org: HTTP
• Greece: ftp.gr.debian.org: FTP HTTP
• Hong Kong: ftp.hk.debian.org: FTP HTTP
• Hungary: ftp.hu.debian.org: FTP
• Indonesia: mirror.unej.ac.id: FTP HTTP
• Ireland: ftp.esat.net: FTP HTTP
• Ireland: ftp.ie.debian.org: FTP HTTP
• Israel: debian.co.il: HTTP
• Italy: debian.dynamica.it: FTP HTTP
• Italy: debian.fastbull.org: FTP HTTP
• Italy: ftp.unina.it: FTP HTTP
• Italy: giano.com.dist.unige.it: FTP HTTP
• Japan: ftp.jaist.ac.jp: FTP HTTP
• Japan: ftp.nara.wide.ad.jp: FTP HTTP
• Japan: ftp.riken.jp: FTP HTTP
• Japan: ftp.yz.yamagata-u.ac.jp: FTP HTTP
• Japan: hanzubon.jp: HTTP
• Korea: ftp.kr.debian.org: FTP HTTP
• Latvia: debian.linux.edu.lv: FTP HTTP
• Lithuania: ftp.litnet.lt: FTP HTTP
• Luxembourg: debian.mirror.root.lu: FTP HTTP
• Mongolia: mirror.debian.mn: FTP HTTP
• Netherlands: debian.mirror.cambrium.nl: FTP HTTP
• Netherlands: ftp.nl.debian.org: FTP HTTP
• Netherlands: mirrors.nl.kernel.org: FTP HTTP
• New Caledonia: ftp.nc.debian.org: FTP HTTP
• Norway: ftp.no.debian.org: FTP HTTP
• Poland: ftp.icm.edu.pl: FTP HTTP
• Poland: ftp.pl.debian.org: HTTP
• Poland: ftp.ps.pl: FTP HTTP
• Poland: ftp.pwr.wroc.pl: FTP HTTP
• Poland: ftp.vectranet.pl: FTP HTTP
• Poland: piotrkosoft.net: FTP HTTP
• Portugal: debian.dcc.fc.up.pt: HTTP
• Portugal: ftp.pt.debian.org: FTP HTTP
• Portugal: mirrors.nfsi.pt: FTP HTTP
• Portugal: neacm.fe.up.pt: FTP HTTP
• Romania: ftp.lug.ro: FTP HTTP
• Romania: ftp.ro.debian.org: FTP HTTP
• Russia: debian.nsu.ru: FTP HTTP
• Russia: ftp.corbina.net: FTP
• Russia: ftp.debian.chuvsu.ru: FTP HTTP
• Russia: ftp.psn.ru: FTP HTTP
• Russia: ftp.ru.debian.org: FTP HTTP
• Russia: mirror.yandex.ru: FTP HTTP
• Slovakia: ftp.antik.sk: FTP HTTP
• South Africa: debian.mirror.ac.za: FTP HTTP
• South Africa: ftp.is.co.za: FTP
• Spain: ftp.caliu.cat: FTP HTTP
• Spain: ftp.cica.es: FTP HTTP
• Spain: ftp.gva.es: FTP HTTP
• Spain: ftp.rediris.es: FTP HTTP
• Spain: ftp.udc.es: FTP HTTP
• Spain: jane.uab.cat: HTTP
• Sweden: cdimage.debian.org: HTTP
• Sweden: ftp.df.lth.se: FTP HTTP
• Sweden: ftp.ds.karen.hj.se: FTP HTTP
• Sweden: ftp.port80.se: FTP HTTP
• Sweden: ftp.se.debian.org: FTP HTTP
• Sweden: ftp.sunet.se: FTP HTTP
• Sweden: mirrors.se.kernel.org: FTP HTTP
• Switzerland: ftp.ch.debian.org: FTP HTTP
• Switzerland: mirror.switch.ch: FTP HTTP
• Taiwan: debian.csie.nctu.edu.tw: HTTP
• Taiwan: debian.nctu.edu.tw: HTTP
• Taiwan: ftp.cse.yzu.edu.tw: FTP HTTP
• Taiwan: ftp.isu.edu.tw: FTP HTTP
• Taiwan: ftp.ncnu.edu.tw: FTP HTTP
• Taiwan: ftp.tcc.edu.tw: FTP HTTP
• Taiwan: ftp.tku.edu.tw: FTP HTTP
• Taiwan: ftp.tw.debian.org: FTP HTTP
• Taiwan: ftp.twaren.net: FTP HTTP
• Thailand: ftp.th.debian.org: FTP HTTP
• Thailand: ftp.v6.coe.psu.ac.th: FTP HTTP
• Thailand: mirror.in.th: FTP HTTP
• Turkey: debian.comu.edu.tr: FTP
• Turkey: ftp.linux.org.tr: FTP HTTP
• Turkey: ftp.tr.debian.org: FTP HTTP
• Ukraine: ftp.3logic.net: FTP
• Ukraine: ftp.ua.debian.org: FTP HTTP
• Ukraine: ftp2.debian.org.ua: FTP HTTP
• United States: carroll.aset.psu.edu: FTP HTTP
• United States: debian.cites.uiuc.edu: FTP HTTP
• United States: debian.osuosl.org: FTP HTTP
• United States: ftp.gtlib.gatech.edu: FTP HTTP
• United States: ftp.keystealth.org: FTP HTTP
• United States: ftp.ndlug.nd.edu: FTP HTTP
• United States: ftp.utexas.edu: HTTP
• United States: mirror.cs.wisc.edu: FTP HTTP
• United States: mirror.rit.edu: FTP HTTP
• United States: mirror.steadfast.net: HTTP
• United States: mirror.yellowfiber.net: HTTP
• United States: mirrors.hosef.org: FTP HTTP
• United States: mirrors.kernel.org: FTP HTTP
• United States: mirrors.modwest.com: HTTP
• United States: mirrors.usc.edu: FTP HTTP
• United States: mirrors.xmission.com: FTP HTTP

Instructions on how to set up a CD image mirror.

Art works.

01. Refer to the exhibit. A student working in the lab selects a cable that is wired as shown. Which connection types can successfully be made with this cable? (Choose two.)

• connecting a PC to a router’s console port
• connecting two routers together via their fast ethernet ports
• connecting two switches together at gigabit speeds
• connecting a PC to a switch at Gigabit Ethernet speeds
• connecting two devices with the same interface type at Fast Ethernet speeds

02. Which option identifies the primary interface which would be used for initial configuration of a Cisco router?

• AUX interface
• Ethernet interface
• serial interface
• console interface

03. What makes fiber preferable to copper cabling for interconnecting buildings? (Choose three.)

• greater distances per cable run
• lower installation cost
• limited susceptibility to EMI/RFI
• durable connections
• greater bandwidth potential
• easily terminated

04. A network administrator is required to use media in the network that can run up to 100 meters in cable length without using repeaters. The chosen media must be inexpensive and easily installed. The installation will be in a pre-existing building with limited cabling space. Which type of media would best meet these requirements?

• STP
• UTP
• coaxial
• single-mode fiber
• multimode fiber

05. What does the term “attenuation” mean in data communication?

• loss of signal strength as distance increases
• time for a signal to reach its destination
• leakage of signals from one cable pair to another
• strengthening of a signal by a networking device

06. How many host addresses may be assigned on each subnetwork when using the 130.68.0.0 network address with a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0?

• 30
• 256
• 2046
• 2048
• 4094
• 4096

07. Which subnet mask would be assigned to the network address of 192.168.32.0 to provide 254 useable host addresses per subnetwork?

• 255.255.0.0
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.254.0
• 255.255.248.0

08. A company is planning to subnet its network for a maximum of 27 hosts. Which subnet mask would provide the needed hosts and leave the fewest unused addresses in each subnet?

• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.192
• 255.255.255.224
• 255.255.255.240
• 255.255.255.248

09. What type of network cable is used between a terminal and a console port?

• cross-over
• straight-through
• rollover
• patch cable

10. Which device is used to create or divide broadcast domains?

• hub
• switch
• bridge
• router
• repeater

11. Refer to the exhibit. What destination IP address will PC1 place in the header for a packet destined for PC2?

• 192.168.1.1
• 192.168.2.1
• 192.168.2.2
• 192.168.3.1
• 192.168.3.54

12. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the IP configuration shown, what would be the result of Host A and Host B attempting to communicate outside the network segment?

• both host A and B would be successful
• host A would be successful, host B would fail
• host B would be successful, host A would fail
• both Host A and B would fail

13. Which three types of connectors are commonly associated with Cisco’s V.35 serial cables? (Choose three.)

• RJ 11
• DB 60
• Winchester 15 pin
• DB 9
• smart serial
• RJ 45

14. Refer to the exhibit. How many subnets are required to support the network that is shown?

• 2
• 3
• 4
• 5

15. What are two common methods for setting a UTP Ethernet port to MDI or MDIX operation? (Choose two.)

• cable color code association
• cable selection and configuration
• use of cable testers to determine pinouts
• the automatic detection and negotiating of MDI/MDIX operation of the port
• the enabling of the mechanism to electrically swap the transmit and receive pairs

16. Refer to the exhibit. A student is setting up a home network primarily used for extensive file transfers, streaming video, and gaming. Which network device is best suited to these types of activities in the topology shown?

• wireless access point
• router
• hub
• switch

17. Which three statements are true about the role of routers in the network? (Choose three.)

• They propagate broadcasts.
• They enlarge collision domains.
• They segment broadcast domains.
• They interconnect different network technologies.
• Each router interface requires a separate network or subnet.
• They maintain a common frame format between LAN and WAN interfaces.

18. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has decided to use packet capture software to evaluate all traffic from the student subnet on the way to the Internet. To ensure that all packets are captured, what network device should be used to connect the monitoring station to the network between R1 and R2?

• hub
• router
• firewall appliance
• wireless access point

19. Refer to the exhibit. Assume that all devices are using default settings. How many subnets are required to address the topology that is shown?

• 1
• 3
• 4
• 5
• 7

20. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true about the exhibited topology? (Choose three.)

• Hosts B and C are in the same subnet.
• Five broadcast domains are present.
• Host B is using a crossover cable to connect to the router.
• Four broadcast domains are present.
• Five networks are shown.
• Host B is using a rollover cable to connect to the router.

21. To establish a console connection from a computer to a Cisco router, which cable wiring option would be used?

• crossover cable
• straight through cable
• rollover cable
• V.35 cable

22. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements identify the type of cabling that would be used in the segments that are shown? (Choose three.)

• Segment 1 uses backbone cabling.
• Segment 1 uses a patch cable.
• Segment 3 uses patch cabling.
• Segment 3 uses vertical cabling.
• Segment 3 uses horizontal cabling.
• Segment 4 uses vertical cabling.

23. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician has been allocated the 192.168.1.0/24 private IP address range for use in the network that shown in the exhibit. Which subnet mask would be used to meet the host requirements for segment A of this internetwork?

• 255.255.255.128
• 255.255.255.192
• 255.255.255.224
• 255.255.255.240
• 255.255.255.248